Topic: Question about intrabar interpolation
I would like to clarify a point that came up while comparing the behaviour of a strategy developed with the FSB and the 1:1 converted one in MQL4. Of course, both cases share the same history data.
Premises: I deal with a D1 strategy on EURUSD and the MQ reported is 90,79% (massive use of M1 data), no ambigous bars reported.
It's about a bar, where one order is closed (TakeProfit, see pic) and I should get 2 short signals (at S2 level). One is actually present, before the TP, but the order is cancelled (Same Direction Signal -> Nothing). And that is correct.
The point is that there is another short signal that should arise (as actually does in MT4), at the same level of the first, between L and C, but it doesn't. Why?
Thank you in advance for your kind support.